Is a wife considered sinful and cursed by angels if she refuses to engage in sexual intimacy with her husband after marriage, based on a prior agreement between them not to engage in such a relationship?

If the spouses agree to abstain from intercourse without a condition stipulated in the contract, there is no harm. However, either of them has the right to withdraw from this agreement and demand it, because it is a renewable right. If the agreement was based on a condition, then the condition is invalid, but the marriage remains valid, similar to a condition of not having intercourse. If the wife requests abstinence, thinking it is her right, we hope that the warning (of punishment) does not apply to her, and it should be clarified to her that she does not have the right to abstain.