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The question

Is the prayer of one who suffers from urinary incontinence valid?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a person suffers from urinary incontinence ( سلس البول ) and performs ablution ( يتوضأ ) after the time for prayer ( وقت الصلاة ) has begun, and then prays, their prayer is valid, and the incontinence has no effect on its acceptance. It is obligatory for them to perform ablution for every prayer, according to the majority of scholars, based on the Prophet Muhammad’s (peace be upon him) saying to the woman with perpetual vaginal bleeding ( المستحاضة ): "Perform ablution for every prayer and pray." As for Malik's view that it is merely recommended to perform ablution for every prayer unless one is bothered by the cold, the view of the majority of scholars is more preponderant. Prayer is not waived for a legally responsible person as long as they possess their intellect.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
43579
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy