Does a man's divorce of his wife, who has despaired of menstruation, take effect on the day he has intercourse with her?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If the wife is menopausal (her menstruation has ceased), then her divorce is effective even if it occurs after intercourse, because the divorce of a menopausal woman involves neither nor innovation (Bid'ah).
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/174244
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- Original fatwa ID
- 174244
- Imported
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