Is what I did permissible, in taking back my wife after the second and third divorces, on the grounds that the divorce occurred during a period of purity in which there was intercourse, and what is incumbent upon me to do regarding that?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
A Muslim must rely on trustworthy scholars for knowledge of Islamic rulings, especially concerning matters of divorce. A man divorcing his wife during a period of purity (Tuhr) in which he has had intercourse with her is unlawful and is called an innovative divorce (Talaq Bidah). The majority of scholars hold that such a divorce is valid, contrary to the opinion of Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah. As for the statement "irrevocable divorce" (Talaq Ba'in), there is disagreement regarding its meaning, but the preponderant view is that the woman becomes forbidden to the one who utters it. It is advisable to resort to the Shariah court to settle the matter.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/92906
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 92906
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy