In a Murabaha sale, does the client ask the bank to purchase for him the commodity he desires at a known cost and agreed-upon profit, or must the commodity be owned by the bank beforehand and then sold by the bank to the client in installments?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
There is no difference in Murabaha sales whether the commodity is owned by the seller (the bank) or if the seller acquires it based on the customer's request. If the seller takes possession of the commodity and receives it, then it is permissible to sell it to the customer.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/65418
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 65418
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy