Does a divorce take effect when a husband says to his menstruating wife: "Consider yourself divorced after purity," with his intention to divorce her after purity, and is his reconciliation with her after purity valid if he says: "If I have divorced her, then I have taken her back"?
Divorce does not occur with this wording, as long as the intention was to divorce her after purity and he did not do so; because the intention was to effectuate it in the future, and he did not effectuate it.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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