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The question

Is my marital intimacy with my husband after he divorced me for the third time permissible or forbidden, given Dar al-Ifta's fatwa that this divorce did not occur based on my husband's intention?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Divorce is a last resort in cases of a wife's insubordination (nushooz), and a woman is not permitted to seek divorce without a legitimate Shar'i reason. If a husband has divorced his wife twice previously, and then utters the word "three" (referring to a triple divorce), she becomes irrevocably separated from him (baynunah kubra). She is not lawful for him again unless she marries another man and he subsequently leaves her. In this situation, the wife must seek separation from the husband. Divorce occurs with explicit utterance, even if not intended, and mere anger does not prevent its occurrence as long as the speaker is conscious of what he is saying.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
92825
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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