Do the words of divorce uttered by the husband in states of anger count, knowing that one of them was shortly after the wife's childbirth?
The phrase "you are divorced" is one of the explicit forms of divorce by which divorce takes effect without the need for intention. The first pronouncement of divorce takes effect, even if it occurs before the wife purifies herself from her post-natal bleeding, according to the preponderant opinion of the majority of scholars. Ibn Taymiyyah dissented from this view. The second pronouncement of divorce is considered effective if the wife is still under the husband's marital authority at the time of divorce, meaning she is either within the waiting period (iddah) from the first divorce or he has taken her back. However, if it occurs after her waiting period has ended, it is not effective. The divorce of an angry person does not take effect if his anger is so severe that he does not comprehend what he is saying. It is not permissible for a wife to seek divorce without a legitimate Shar'i reason, due to the warning of the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him: "Any woman who asks her husband for divorce without any sound reason, the fragrance of Paradise will be forbidden to her."
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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