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The question

Does a divorce take place if a man swears to his wife that she will not buy household utensils, and she proceeds to buy them, despite his doubt about the wording of the oath and whether or not there was an intention to threaten?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The we adhere to is that divorce occurs with a single divorce if you did not send your wife to her mother's house to stay there, whether you intended divorce or threat. This is the view of the majority of scholars. As for the opinion of Ibn Taymiyyah, as long as you did not firmly intend divorce, then divorce does not occur with your breach, and you owe an expiation for breaking an oath.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
173692
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy