Does the divorce that occurred three years ago count, given that the woman was not certain of her state (menstruating or not) at the time of the divorce?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If the spouses are certain that a divorce has occurred, then it is effective. Even if it occurred during menstruation, it is effective according to the majority of scholars. The occurrence of divorce does not depend on its registration with a judge. If the husband doubts the occurrence of divorce, then nothing is incumbent upon him, because the original state is the continuation of the marital bond. However, the Sharia judiciary remains the final authority on the matter.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 95623
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