Why is "the cry" (الصيحة) mentioned as masculine in verse 67 of Surah Hud and as feminine in verse 94 of the same Surah?

The Qur’an was revealed in the language of the Arabs, and when Arabs ascribed a verb to a metaphorical feminine (not truly feminine), it was permissible for them to attach the feminine "ta’" to the verb, and permissible to strip it away. And "al-ṣayḥah" (the shout/cry) is metaphorically feminine. So when the verb "akhadha" (took) was ascribed to it, it was permissible for the verb to have the "ta’" attached, and permissible for it to be stripped away. Thus, the Qur’an came with both linguistic forms.