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Is it permissible for a woman to ask her husband to visit the children only, without having intercourse with her, while the marital relationship continues, especially if he is failing to fulfill her rights and she does not want a divorce out of compassion for him?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

If the husband does not provide for his wife, she has the right to take her case to court to compel him to provide maintenance or to separate them. However, if she chooses to remain with him, she is not obliged to obey him in marital relations, as stated by Ibn Qudamah and Al-Shirazi. Nevertheless, it is preferable and more cautious for the wife not to refuse her husband, due to the general evidence that obliges obedience to the husband in intimacy.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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