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The question

How does a husband divorce his wife if the marriage contract is invalid, sexual intercourse is impermissible, and there is no obligation for financial support, and how does divorce occur in a marriage that is not valid?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A corrupt marriage (Nikah Fāsid) that is unanimously agreed upon as invalid does not require a divorce. This is unlike a corrupt marriage where there is a scholarly difference of opinion regarding its invalidity; such a marriage requires a divorce from the husband or the judge, in consideration of the scholars who deem it valid. There is a distinction between a void marriage (Nikah Bāṭil) and a corrupt marriage (Nikah Fāsid). A corrupt marriage (where there is a difference of opinion) entails the effects of a valid contract, such as inheritance, and requires an 'iddah (waiting period), unlike a void marriage (which is unanimously agreed upon as invalid).

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
135552
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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