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The question

Is it considered ẓihār if a man says to his wife: "A part of your body is forbidden to me, and it is the place of the private parts," and what are the consequences if it is ẓihār?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Whoever likens a part of his wife to his mother’s back has committed ẓihār (a pre-Islamic form of divorce) against her, and the expiation for ẓihār, as mentioned in Surat Al-Mujadilah, becomes incumbent upon him: (freeing a slave, and if he cannot find one, then fasting for two consecutive months, and if he is unable to do so, then feeding sixty needy people).

As for whoever forbids a part of her from himself, if he intended ẓihār, then it is ẓihār. If he intended divorce, then it counts as a divorce. If he did not intend anything or intended an oath, then the expiation for breaking an oath becomes incumbent upon him, as stated in Surat At-Tahrim and Al-Ma'idah: (feeding ten needy people, or clothing them, or freeing a slave, and if he cannot find one, then fasting for three days).

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
33642
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Source text, unreviewed
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