Is it considered ẓihār if a man says to his wife: "A part of your body is forbidden to me, and it is the place of the private parts," and what are the consequences if it is ẓihār?
Whoever likens a part of his wife to his mother’s back has committed ẓihār (a pre-Islamic form of divorce) against her, and the expiation for ẓihār, as mentioned in Surat Al-Mujadilah, becomes incumbent upon him: (freeing a slave, and if he cannot find one, then fasting for two consecutive months, and if he is unable to do so, then feeding sixty needy people).
As for whoever forbids a part of her from himself, if he intended ẓihār, then it is ẓihār. If he intended divorce, then it counts as a divorce. If he did not intend anything or intended an oath, then the expiation for breaking an oath becomes incumbent upon him, as stated in Surat At-Tahrim and Al-Ma'idah: (feeding ten needy people, or clothing them, or freeing a slave, and if he cannot find one, then fasting for three days).
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/33642
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 33642
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy