Is sexual intercourse a prerequisite in the Maliki and Hanafi schools for a woman to become lawful for her first husband, or is the marriage contract and private seclusion sufficient without sexual intercourse? And is it true that only the Shafi'i school stipulated sexual intercourse?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
A woman divorced irrevocably (three times) is not lawful for her first husband unless she marries another man and he has vaginal intercourse with her. A mere marriage contract or intercourse without vaginal penetration is not sufficient. This is a consensus among scholars.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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