Is the woman considered the wife of her husband, or divorced and observing her iddah (waiting period), after he divorced her twice then took her back, then divorced her a third time without verbally taking her back, despite the continuation of communication and intimate contact between them?
If the husband writes the divorce in a message, but does not utter it verbally and does not intend divorce by it, then the preponderant opinion is that it does not occur. However, if it is an audio message in which he explicitly utters the divorce, then it has occurred. Anger does not prevent the occurrence of divorce unless it completely deprives him of his sanity. Reconciliation (rajah) during the iddah period does not occur except with an explicit verbal statement or an allusive statement accompanied by intention. When there is a dispute regarding the occurrence of divorce, the apparent statement is that of the husband. It is advisable to present the matter to scholars.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/181098
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 181098
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy