Is the first marriage contract considered void, knowing that it was concluded without the questioner performing the Istikhara prayer, and two months after the wife became pregnant, and based on a foreign marriage contract without witnesses? And is the second contract valid after rectifying the void clauses, given the wife's refusal to accompany the questioner to his country?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
Your action of renewing the contract is correct due to the invalidity of the first one. The girl is not to be attributed to you, as she is a product of zina (fornication/adultery); rather, she is attributed to her mother. You must offer sincere repentance to Allah and increase in righteous deeds.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/89331
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 89331
- Imported
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- Source text, unreviewed
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