What is the period for which a man should seclude himself from his wife when the fetus is aborted at two or three months, and does the ruling differ if it is a piece of flesh or fully formed, and is the ruling like that of menstruation or childbirth?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If a woman delivers a fetus that has human form, she is considered to be in her postpartum () period for forty days, according to the preponderant opinion. If she delivers it before that, the ruling differs: it is considered menstruation (hayd) by Malik and Shafi'i, and a discharge of illness and corruption (dam 'illa wa fasad) by others.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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