Can the Qur’anic verses that mention "possessed by jinn (majnoon)" or "afflicted by jinn (bihi jinnatun)" be used as evidence that jinn possess humans?

There is no objection to using verses as evidence for the jinn's touch, as Arabs express the jinn's touch as madness, and the Quran did not deny its existence. Sheikh al-Islam also used this verse as evidence for the jinn's touch on humans.