Is a man's saying "Aywa" (yes) considered an acceptance of divorce if he meant for his friend to continue speaking, not to agree to the divorce?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Divorce does not occur except with an explicit utterance indicating it, or with an implicit expression accompanied by intention. The word "aywa" (yes/yeah) is neither explicit in divorce nor among its implicit expressions. So, if its meaning is "yes" or "continue" or similar, then divorce does not occur by it.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/106356
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 106356
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy