Is a man's saying "Aywa" (yes) considered an acceptance of divorce if he meant for his friend to continue speaking, not to agree to the divorce?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
Divorce does not occur except with an explicit utterance indicating it, or with an implicit expression accompanied by intention. The word "aywa" (yes/yeah) is neither explicit in divorce nor among its implicit expressions. So, if its meaning is "yes" or "continue" or similar, then divorce does not occur by it.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/106356
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 106356
- Imported
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- Source text, unreviewed
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