Is the mother considered to have broken her oath and is expiation due upon her, after she swore not to sell her harvest to a specific person, then her partner in the land sold that harvest to another person, only for it to become clear that the buyer is a partner with the person she swore against, and he is the one who brought the money and spoke with the mother?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The mother did not break her oath because the one who sold was her partner, and the sale was not concluded with the person she swore not to sell to, but rather with his partner. The jurists have stipulated that if someone swears not to sell to a specific person, and then sells to that person's agent, they do not break their oath.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/187827
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 187827
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy