Does divorce occur and the wife become unlawful to her husband if the husband says to his wife: "You are unlawful to me if you do such and such," and then the wife does that act with the husband's intention of divorce, and what is the ruling on the intercourse that took place between them during the waiting period without the husband's knowledge and the wife's forgetfulness?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Divorce occurs when the wife is declared unlawful with the intention of divorce. If the husband has intercourse with his wife after declaring her unlawful and before the expiration of her waiting period (), she returns to his wedlock. However, he must be informed that a divorce has occurred so that he is aware of the reduction in the number of divorces.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/160733
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 160733
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy