What is the ruling on a husband having intercourse with his wife in the vagina one or two days before or after menstruation, given the presence of a few traces of blood during penetration, and should intercourse be completed or stopped, considering that actual menstruation has not yet occurred?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
Capillary bleeding does not establish the ruling of menses, whether it occurs before the onset of menstruation or after seeing the signs of purity. This is because menstruation is defined as a flow, and its ruling is only established when blood exits the vagina and becomes visible. There is no harm in a husband having intercourse with his wife if these capillaries are present, as they are not considered menstruation.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/100533
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 100533
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy