Does a divorce issued with the words, "By the three divorces, if you said that," occur as a result of a misunderstanding regarding the wife's arrival time, knowing that the intention was to affirm the truthfulness of the statement and not the divorce? If it occurred, how is it to be revoked? And if it did not occur, what is the expiation for the oath?
If a man swears an oath of divorce concerning something he believes to be true, and then it turns out to be otherwise, the preponderant view is that he does not break his oath and the divorce does not occur. This is the view preferred by Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah. It is advised not to swear oaths of divorce.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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