What is the ruling on swearing by divorce in a situation like this, and does the word "I divorce" mean the pronouncement of divorce?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
A man's statement "I divorce" without attributing it to his wife or intending divorce does not effect a divorce. This is because the words of divorce must be explicitly or implicitly attributed to the wife. If they are not attributed to her—for example, if he says: "If you leave, divorce will occur," or "Do not leave except with my permission, for I have sworn by divorce," and then she leaves—no divorce occurs, because he failed to attribute it to her.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/121289
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 121289
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy