What is the ruling on conjugal relations with one's wife after saying "If you do such and such, you are unlawful to me" twice, out of ignorance of the religious ruling, which later became clear upon reading Surat Al-Mujadilah?

If the wife does not do what the husband swore by making her unlawful for doing, then nothing is incumbent upon him. However, if she does it, then what the husband intended by the word "unlawful" (تحريم) must be considered:

- If he intended ẓihār (a pre-Islamic form of divorce), then it is ẓihār, and he is obliged to offer the expiation for ẓihār (emancipating a slave, or fasting for two consecutive months, or feeding sixty needy persons). He is not permitted to approach her until he has performed it.

- If he intended divorce, then it counts as two divorces, and reconciliation is valid after the second divorce through intercourse.

- If he did not intend either of these, and only intended prohibition, then it is an oath, and he is obliged to offer the expiation for an oath (feeding ten needy persons or clothing them or emancipating a slave; if he cannot, then fasting for three days).