To what extent is the jurisprudential rule "no ijtihad with a text" valid when considering the Hadith of Wadi al-Qura, and did the Prophet pray the Fajr supererogatory prayer before the obligatory prayer, and how is the ijtihad of Malik and Al-Thawri, to perform the obligatory prayer before the Sunnah, explained given the presence of the text?

The Messenger of Allah, peace and blessings be upon him, prayed the two rak'ahs of Fajr before the Fajr prayer when he missed the Fajr prayer while traveling and woke up after sunrise. This is what the Hanbalis, Hanafis, and some Malikis adopted.

As for Imam Malik, the Hadith of the Valley did not reach him. He used as evidence the hadith ordering the performance of a missed obligatory prayer at the time one remembers it, and he held the view that performing a Sunnah prayer before an obligatory one distracts from the obligatory prayer with something else.

Scholars differed concerning whether one who missed the Fajr prayer should pray the two rak'ahs of Fajr before it. Abu Hanifa, Shafi'i, Ahmad, Dawud, and some Malikis held the view that they should be prayed. Malik, Thawri, and Layth held the view that they should not be prayed before the missed Fajr prayer.