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Is a wife considered divorced if she addresses a man after having made her divorce conditional on her speaking to men, knowing that she had previously met a young man online, and that her last conversation was with a man about work matters?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

Conditional divorce, according to the majority of scholars, takes effect if the condition upon which it is based occurs. However, Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah holds the view that it does not take effect if its intent was merely a threat, and it can be resolved with an expiation for breaking an oath (kaffarat yamin). The utterance of "tahrim" (making something unlawful), if intended as divorce, is considered divorce; if intended as zihar (a pre-Islamic form of divorce by comparing one's wife to an unmarriageable relative), it is zihar; and if nothing specific was intended, it is an oath. In the case of conditional divorce, reference is made to the husband's intention. If he intended to prevent his wife from speaking to foreign men generally, then the divorce takes effect if she speaks to that particular man. If he intended to prevent her from speaking to men only in a suspicious manner, then she has not broken her oath. If there is doubt about his intention, the apparent ruling is that his oath is interpreted as preventing her from speaking to men in a suspicious manner, acting upon the cause and motive for the oath. It is advisable to present the matter to a Sharia court or to trustworthy scholars.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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