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The question

What is incumbent upon one who swore that he did not do something which he had in fact done, and committed sodomy before repentance? Is expiation (kaffarah) obligatory upon him?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Whoever swears falsely that he did not commit an act which he did commit, has sworn a ' ghamus' (a false oath taken knowingly), which is one of the gravest major sins. Likewise, sodomy is among the most heinous major sins. The expiation for this is sincere repentance to Allah and seeking His forgiveness, for Allah accepts repentance and pardons sins. As for swearing falsely, there is a difference of opinion among scholars as to whether it requires an expiation for an oath. It is more prudent to offer expiation for it, so as to avoid disagreement.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
130208
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy