If a man sells his daughter out of poverty, would the ruling pertaining to female slaves apply to her?

Selling a free person is invalid by the consensus of the people of knowledge, due to the saying of the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him: "Allah said: 'There are three whose opponent I will be on the Day of Resurrection: a man who gave a covenant in My Name and then betrayed; a man who sold a free person and consumed their price; and a man who hired a laborer and took full work from him but did not pay him his wages.'" Freedom is a right belonging to Allah Almighty, and selling a free person is not among the legitimate causes for enslavement. Therefore, a man selling his daughter is invalid, and the daughter remains free.