Does Khul' take effect if the husband writes: "I have divorced my wife, so-and-so, daughter of so-and-so, through Khul' in exchange for the deferred mahr agreed upon between us," knowing that the wife had previously forgiven him the entire mahr, and the husband desires no compensation other than the restoration of marital life?
If the situation is as described, then what occurred falls under the meaning of khul' (divorce at the wife's instance) without compensation, and it counts as a revocable divorce according to the majority of scholars if the husband intended divorce. However, if he did not intend divorce, then nothing occurs. Writing serves the same purpose as verbal pronouncement in khul' if the husband intended to effectuate it.
Therefore, if there was no real compensation and the husband did not intend divorce, then neither khul' nor divorce occurs.
Assuming it counts as a revocable divorce, if it was not the third divorce and the waiting period (') has not expired, he may take you back without a new marriage contract. If the 'iddah has expired, then a new contract is necessary.
It is advisable to consult the relevant authorities, such as Islamic centers or trustworthy imams, to examine the circumstances.
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