Does divorce occur if the husband says, "Consider it a divorce that has taken place," or if the wife says, "I will count it as one divorce for precaution," after the husband had sworn a contingent divorce with the intention of prevention on a specific night, and he did not violate the oath on that night? And is this considered an explicit delegation of divorce?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
This phrase is not a delegation of divorce and has no consequences. What you mentioned also has no consequences. Discard these whispers and ignore them so that they do not corrupt your religious and worldly affairs.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/151861
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 151861
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- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy