Is it permissible for a father to register his property to his male and female children, excluding his current wife, under the pretext that he intended to do so before marrying her, knowing that he intends to allocate a portion of the inheritance to her?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The father's intention to divide his property has no effect or validity. If he wishes to divide his property now, it must either be a gift () or a bequest (). If it is a gift and a transfer of ownership, it must fulfill the conditions of offer, acceptance, and possession. He must also deal justly with all his children, including his daughter from the second wife, and you must take possession of the gifted property. However, if the transfer of ownership only takes place after his death, then it is a bequest to an heir, which is not valid. It is not permissible to intend harm to any of the heirs.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/68107
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 68107
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy