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Is it permissible for a father to register his property to his male and female children, excluding his current wife, under the pretext that he intended to do so before marrying her, knowing that he intends to allocate a portion of the inheritance to her?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The father's intention to divide his property has no effect or validity. If he wishes to divide his property now, it must either be a gift (hibah) or a bequest (wasiyyah). If it is a gift and a transfer of ownership, it must fulfill the Sharia conditions of offer, acceptance, and possession. He must also deal justly with all his children, including his daughter from the second wife, and you must take possession of the gifted property. However, if the transfer of ownership only takes place after his death, then it is a bequest to an heir, which is not valid. It is not permissible to intend harm to any of the heirs.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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