Does a man's statement to his wife, "I authorize you to do whatever you want," constitute an explicit delegation of divorce, or does it depend on the husband's intention?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The phrase mentioned could imply delegating divorce and other matters, because it is a form of allusion (kinayah) and not an explicit statement. Therefore, the wife does not possess the right to divorce through it unless the husband intended it.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/157837
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 157837
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy