Does the statement "The villain might have done something indecent to the hero" in a foreign film, whose characters and actors are fictional and Christian, constitute slandering chaste women?
The aforementioned statement does not constitute defamation, because defamation is accusing a competent, free, Muslim, sane, chaste person of denying their lineage or of committing adultery.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/155669