Is a divorce considered valid if a man, in a state of anger, says to his menstruating wife: "Divorce be upon me, you know why I am upset with you," with the intention of compelling her to tell the truth, not of divorcing her, and she was unaware of the reason?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If a man divorces his wife believing she knows the reason for his anger, but it turns out she does not, then there is a difference of opinion among scholars regarding this matter. Some, like the Shafi'is and Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah, hold that the divorce does not occur in this case. Ibn Baz stated that divorce does not occur if a person swears an oath based on something he believes to be true, and then it turns out to be otherwise, considering it an idle oath (laghw al-yameen).
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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