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The question

Is a divorce considered valid if a man, in a state of anger, says to his menstruating wife: "Divorce be upon me, you know why I am upset with you," with the intention of compelling her to tell the truth, not of divorcing her, and she was unaware of the reason?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a man divorces his wife believing she knows the reason for his anger, but it turns out she does not, then there is a difference of opinion among scholars regarding this matter. Some, like the Shafi'is and Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah, hold that the divorce does not occur in this case. Ibn Baz stated that divorce does not occur if a person swears an oath based on something he believes to be true, and then it turns out to be otherwise, considering it an idle oath (laghw al-yameen).

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
171428
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy