Back to search
The question

Does a divorce occur if a man swears by divorce upon his wife that she will be divorced if she raises her voice, then he assumes she raised her voice when she did not, but rather spoke sharply, so he tells her: "This means you are divorced based on my assumption"?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The intention of the one swearing an oath is considered in the oath. If the wife speaking sharply is included in what the husband intended by his oath, then she is divorced; otherwise, she is not. The husband's statement, "Now you are considered divorced," is not the initiation of a new divorce but rather an announcement. The wife should recognize the husband's standing and headship, and divorce is not the only solution to marital problems.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
194816
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy