Is the husband's statement "Haram to divorce" considered an explicit declaration of divorce, or does it require intention?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The answer to the question regarding someone who says "divorce" (طلاق) without attributing it to his wife is that some scholars considered it an explicit pronouncement, estimating an omitted phrase such as "divorce is upon me." However, others considered it an implicit pronouncement, and thus the occurrence of divorce depends on the intention. If a person says "forbidden divorce" (حرام طلاق), this utterance is not considered explicit by those who view "divorce" (طلاق) as an implicit pronouncement.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/126328
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 126328
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy