Is the husband's statement "Haram to divorce" considered an explicit declaration of divorce, or does it require intention?

The answer to the question regarding someone who says "divorce" (طلاق) without attributing it to his wife is that some scholars considered it an explicit pronouncement, estimating an omitted phrase such as "divorce is upon me." However, others considered it an implicit pronouncement, and thus the occurrence of divorce depends on the intention. If a person says "forbidden divorce" (حرام طلاق), this utterance is not considered explicit by those who view "divorce" (طلاق) as an implicit pronouncement.