Is it permissible to take money from one's wife, or to borrow it from her, after the husband has said: "Her money is forbidden to me," intending to forbid the money and not the wife, knowing that he did not say, "It is forbidden to me"?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The prohibition of the wife's property does not entail divorce or prohibition. It is permissible for the husband to take what his wife willingly gives him or what he obtains through a lawful means, and no expiation is required of him. Prohibiting what is lawful, other than a wife or a female slave, is null and void.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/135752
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 135752
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy