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Is it permissible to take money from one's wife, or to borrow it from her, after the husband has said: "Her money is forbidden to me," intending to forbid the money and not the wife, knowing that he did not say, "It is forbidden to me"?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The prohibition of the wife's property does not entail divorce or prohibition. It is permissible for the husband to take what his wife willingly gives him or what he obtains through a lawful means, and no expiation is required of him. Prohibiting what is lawful, other than a wife or a female slave, is null and void.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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