Are the two divorces mentioned in the question valid, given that the first divorce was under threat of self-harm, and the second was for the purpose of getting rid of the wife's anger?

If a husband divorces his wife because he thinks she will commit a grave evil against him, herself, or their child, the divorce is not effective, as it falls under the meaning of compulsion (ikrah). However, if he divorces her to escape her anger and screaming, then the divorce is effective. If, by saying, "We are divorced," he intends to inform her of a previous divorce, then no new divorce occurs with this statement, according to some scholars. It is advisable to present these matters to trustworthy scholars.