What is the ruling on one who swore by divorce, saying, "Divorce be upon me" (علي الطلاق), that he would not live in the family home due to a dispute, then circumstances changed and he wished to live there?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If the reason for the oath is specific and it ceases to exist without the intervention of the swearer, then he does not break his oath. An example of this is someone who swore not to live with his family because of the small size of the house, and then the house became larger. He does not break his oath if he returns to live there. However, if the reason for the oath was a dispute, and then the swearer reconciled with the person he was disputing with, he would break his oath if he did what he swore against, because he had a role in the cessation of the cause.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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