Is the marriage contract valid after committing sins such as illicit seclusion, exchanging kisses, and zina (unlawful sexual intercourse) without penetration prior to the contract, given that one was unaware of the necessity of repentance before the contract, followed by remorse and seeking forgiveness afterward? And what must be done now?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
As long as the marriage contract was concluded with offer and acceptance between the guardian and the husband, and in the presence of two witnesses, then the contract is valid. What occurred before the contract of unlawful acts that did not reach adultery does not affect the validity of the contract, and they both must repent to Allah.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 187168
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