Is a wife divorced from one who swore by divorce that she was his and his brother's property, believing that to be the case, then it became clear otherwise?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If a man swears to divorce his wife over something, and then it turns out to be otherwise, there are two views among scholars: 1. The majority believe that the divorce takes effect. 2. Some scholars hold that if he intended to threaten, the divorce does not take effect, and an expiation for breaking an oath becomes obligatory. However, if he intended divorce, then it takes effect.
It is advised to refer to the courts to rule on such matters.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/59811
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 59811
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy