Is the common saying: "My Lord, I have sinned," so Allah says, "My servant, I have forgiven," authentic, and is its attribution to Allah permissible?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
There is no with this exact wording, but the meaning is correct due to the presence of what indicates it in other texts.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/117395
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 117395
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy