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The question

Are the three mentioned pronouncements of divorce—one uttered to oneself, another under duress and without the wife's knowledge, and the third in anger and with insincere intent—considered valid divorces, and is it permissible to take the wife back after these pronouncements? What is the Sharia ruling in these cases?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the first pronouncement of divorce was merely a thought and not uttered, then it is not counted. However, if it was uttered, even if no one heard it, then it takes effect. The second pronouncement of divorce took effect because there was no compelling duress. The third pronouncement of divorce was a khulʿ (dissolution of marriage initiated by the wife). Thus, the second and third pronouncements are counted. As for the first, its occurrence depends on whether it was uttered or if there was an intention to effect the divorce. It is advised to consult the court or scholars of religious knowledge.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
80849
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy