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Are the three mentioned pronouncements of divorce—one uttered to oneself, another under duress and without the wife's knowledge, and the third in anger and with insincere intent—considered valid divorces, and is it permissible to take the wife back after these pronouncements? What is the Sharia ruling in these cases?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

If the first pronouncement of divorce was merely a thought and not uttered, then it is not counted. However, if it was uttered, even if no one heard it, then it takes effect. The second pronouncement of divorce took effect because there was no compelling duress. The third pronouncement of divorce was a khulʿ (dissolution of marriage initiated by the wife). Thus, the second and third pronouncements are counted. As for the first, its occurrence depends on whether it was uttered or if there was an intention to effect the divorce. It is advised to consult the court or scholars of religious knowledge.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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