Is there any Sharia consequence to saying "my wife is unlawful to me" or "divorce be upon me" to oneself, without uttering it, with the intention of obligating oneself to something or refraining from it?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Divorce and prohibition do not occur by mere intention or self-talk without an audible utterance. If the husband does not pronounce divorce or prohibition with a voice he can hear, his divorce or prohibition is not considered to have taken effect. It appears that the whole matter is merely whisperings that should be disregarded.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/136920
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 136920
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy