Is hijab a religious obligation, or is it merely a distinction between a free woman and a bondwoman, caused by societal circumstances in a specific era, especially given that some Companions, like Omar ibn al-Khattab, understood the verse of hijab in this way?
The article refutes the specious arguments of a writer who claims that the hijab was legislated to distinguish free women from slave women, and that the absence of this reason negates the obligatory nature of the hijab, denying its wisdom in preserving chastity and morals. The article emphasizes the following:
- The hijab is a religious obligation because a woman is a mature female, and the distinction between free and slave women is one of its many wisdoms. - Some scholars believe in the obligation of covering for slave women just as for free women, especially if she is beautiful and there is fear of temptation from her. - Chastity and morals are a fundamental objective in the legislation of the hijab, as indicated by the verse: "And as for elderly women past childbearing who do not expect marriage, there is no blame upon them for putting aside their outer garments while not displaying adornment. But to modestly refrain [from that] is better for them" (An-Nur: 60). - The concession for slave women regarding the hijab is a leniency and does not mean permitting them for the immoral. - The writer's citing of some scholarly opinions is dishonest, for Umar ibn al-Khattab, may Allah be pleased with him, asked the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, to command the Mothers of the Believers to wear the hijab, and no scholar of the Ummah has ever said that the hijab is merely for distinction.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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