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The question

Is a person's statement "I will give so-and-so such-and-such" or "I will donate such-and-such to so-and-so" – without informing them – considered a promise, and does this fall under the issue of the obligation to fulfill a promise, knowing that it is merely an expression of an intention to do good and no one has yet been promised?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The scholars have not explicitly addressed the issue of expressing an intention for doing good as a separate matter, but it appears to fall under the definition of a promise (wa'd). A promise is defined as "informing of the delivery of good in the future" or "an announcement by the one informing about performing a kindness in the future." It is not a condition for a promise that the one being promised knows about it or accepts it, because it is not a contract. This is what distinguishes it from a gift (hiba), which requires offer and acceptance. In conclusion, what was issued by the questioner is considered a promise.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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