Would the marriage be lawful or annulled based on the answer numbered 35473, and what is the Islamic legal ruling concerning the lineage of the child in this situation, especially since there are two opinions: one attributing the child to the mother, and the other differentiating based on the duration of the pregnancy?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Scholars differ regarding the validity of marriage to a woman with whom one has committed fornication before her womb is cleared (istibra'). Some validate it, while others do not. If she gives birth to a child six months or more after the marriage, the child is attributed to him. However, if she gives birth before that, it is a child of fornication and is not attributed to him, except in the view of Abu Hanifa if he claims paternity.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/59036
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 59036
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy