Is it permissible for a woman who has been verbally divorced to marry in accordance with Sharia before the completion of civil procedures that require one year to pass since the divorce?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If a husband divorces his wife verbally and her ' (waiting period) expires, she becomes irrevocably separated from him and is considered a stranger to him. She is then permitted to marry someone else. However, if the law does not recognize divorce until after one year, then marriage would expose her to legal accountability, and a Muslim should not put himself in such a difficult situation. This is one of the disadvantages of residing in non-Muslim lands, and it is more proper for a Muslim to reside in a Muslim country. Indeed, emigration may become obligatory for one who fears trials concerning his religion.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 138949
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